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“Seemed to had” is it correct?



Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 17/18, 2019 at 00:00UTC (8:00pm US/Eastern)Are there tools or techniques to stop translating literally?Is this usage of the verb “had outfitted” correct?“Seemed connected” vs “Seemed to be connected.”Is “I have had to take a leave” correct?Is “I switched off television because I had exam the very next day.” correct?It seemed it's gonna take foreverUse of would had beenA teacher said to use “I don't need that” instead of “I won't be needing that” because there is no “continuous in modal verbs”Is “I had better ring him” grammatically correct?Had had (Is it a past perfect or past simple)



.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








2















Here's a sentence I made up:



"He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"



Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.



Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:



"He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"



Would it still be grammatical?










share|improve this question




























    2















    Here's a sentence I made up:



    "He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"



    Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.



    Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:



    "He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"



    Would it still be grammatical?










    share|improve this question
























      2












      2








      2








      Here's a sentence I made up:



      "He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"



      Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.



      Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:



      "He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"



      Would it still be grammatical?










      share|improve this question














      Here's a sentence I made up:



      "He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him"



      Is this sentence correct? I tried searching for similar sentences by putting quotation marks around 'seemed to had not', and out popped roughly 5-6 results, but that doesn't seem to be that many, especially because some of those could've been mistakes, and I couldn't find any questions like this.



      Also, assuming it is correct, if I change the position of 'not', like so:



      "He seemed to not had understood what I had said to him"



      Would it still be grammatical?







      grammar grammaticality






      share|improve this question













      share|improve this question











      share|improve this question




      share|improve this question










      asked 4 hours ago









      FrostC0FrostC0

      359210




      359210




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          7














          No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



          This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




          seem / appear to + infinitive



          After seem and appear we often use a
          to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
          for past events).

          ...




          So what you should say is either of:



          1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


          2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


          3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.


          The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.






          share|improve this answer




















          • 1





            The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

            – phoog
            4 hours ago












          • Thank you for the help!

            – FrostC0
            4 hours ago











          • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

            – Colin Fine
            3 hours ago











          • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

            – phoog
            2 hours ago



















          1














          No,




          He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




          is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



          Here's what you should use:




          He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.







          share|improve this answer


















          • 1





            Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

            – FrostC0
            4 hours ago


















          0














          to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



          He seems to understand. [bare, present]



          He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



          The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.






          share|improve this answer























            Your Answer








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            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

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            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes









            7














            No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



            This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




            seem / appear to + infinitive



            After seem and appear we often use a
            to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
            for past events).

            ...




            So what you should say is either of:



            1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


            2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


            3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.


            The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.






            share|improve this answer




















            • 1





              The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

              – phoog
              4 hours ago












            • Thank you for the help!

              – FrostC0
              4 hours ago











            • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

              – Colin Fine
              3 hours ago











            • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

              – phoog
              2 hours ago
















            7














            No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



            This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




            seem / appear to + infinitive



            After seem and appear we often use a
            to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
            for past events).

            ...




            So what you should say is either of:



            1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


            2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


            3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.


            The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.






            share|improve this answer




















            • 1





              The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

              – phoog
              4 hours ago












            • Thank you for the help!

              – FrostC0
              4 hours ago











            • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

              – Colin Fine
              3 hours ago











            • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

              – phoog
              2 hours ago














            7












            7








            7







            No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



            This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




            seem / appear to + infinitive



            After seem and appear we often use a
            to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
            for past events).

            ...




            So what you should say is either of:



            1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


            2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


            3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.


            The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.






            share|improve this answer















            No matter where you put the "not", a statement with "to had" isn't grammatical. The construction you are using is "seem" + to-infinitive. The infinitive for the verb have/had is "to have", not "to had."



            This is discussed in detail on the BBC "Learning English" website:




            seem / appear to + infinitive



            After seem and appear we often use a
            to + infinitive construction ( or a perfect infinitive construction
            for past events).

            ...




            So what you should say is either of:



            1. He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.


            2. He seemed to have not understood what I had said to him.


            3. He seemed to not have understood what I had said to him.


            The "not" could really go in any of those 3 places, but the first possibility sounds smoother and more idiomatic. The last sentence sounds the least natural to me, even slightly awkward.







            share|improve this answer














            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer








            edited 4 hours ago

























            answered 4 hours ago









            Lorel C.Lorel C.

            4,7521510




            4,7521510







            • 1





              The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

              – phoog
              4 hours ago












            • Thank you for the help!

              – FrostC0
              4 hours ago











            • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

              – Colin Fine
              3 hours ago











            • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

              – phoog
              2 hours ago













            • 1





              The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

              – phoog
              4 hours ago












            • Thank you for the help!

              – FrostC0
              4 hours ago











            • @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

              – Colin Fine
              3 hours ago











            • @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

              – phoog
              2 hours ago








            1




            1





            The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

            – phoog
            4 hours ago






            The word order in sentences 2 and 3 has only become acceptable in the last 2 or 3 decades.

            – phoog
            4 hours ago














            Thank you for the help!

            – FrostC0
            4 hours ago





            Thank you for the help!

            – FrostC0
            4 hours ago













            @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

            – Colin Fine
            3 hours ago





            @phoog: I don't think the sticklers ever objected to 2 particularly, though they certainly did to 3.

            – Colin Fine
            3 hours ago













            @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

            – phoog
            2 hours ago






            @ColinFine in my experience it's not so much about sticklers as just the sentences that people would actually say or write.

            – phoog
            2 hours ago














            1














            No,




            He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




            is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



            Here's what you should use:




            He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.







            share|improve this answer


















            • 1





              Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

              – FrostC0
              4 hours ago















            1














            No,




            He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




            is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



            Here's what you should use:




            He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.







            share|improve this answer


















            • 1





              Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

              – FrostC0
              4 hours ago













            1












            1








            1







            No,




            He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




            is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



            Here's what you should use:




            He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.







            share|improve this answer













            No,




            He seemed to had not understood what I had said to him.




            is not grammatical at all, and neither is your other construction.



            Here's what you should use:




            He seemed not to have understood what I had said to him.








            share|improve this answer












            share|improve this answer



            share|improve this answer










            answered 4 hours ago









            RobustoRobusto

            12.5k23044




            12.5k23044







            • 1





              Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

              – FrostC0
              4 hours ago












            • 1





              Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

              – FrostC0
              4 hours ago







            1




            1





            Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

            – FrostC0
            4 hours ago





            Could you explain why it's incorrect, if you don't mind of course.

            – FrostC0
            4 hours ago











            0














            to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



            He seems to understand. [bare, present]



            He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



            The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.






            share|improve this answer



























              0














              to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



              He seems to understand. [bare, present]



              He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



              The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.






              share|improve this answer

























                0












                0








                0







                to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



                He seems to understand. [bare, present]



                He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



                The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.






                share|improve this answer













                to has to be followed by a bare infinitive or perfect infinitive:



                He seems to understand. [bare, present]



                He seems to have understood. [perfect infinitive, past idea or tense]



                The perfect infinitive is have + the past participle.







                share|improve this answer












                share|improve this answer



                share|improve this answer










                answered 4 hours ago









                LambieLambie

                17.6k1540




                17.6k1540



























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