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Unable to understand Kernel Ridge regression
Announcing the arrival of Valued Associate #679: Cesar Manara
Planned maintenance scheduled April 23, 2019 at 23:30 UTC (7:30pm US/Eastern)
2019 Moderator Election Q&A - Questionnaire
2019 Community Moderator Election ResultsWhat does the Ip mean in the Bayesian Ridge Regression formula?Regression in KerasWhat exactly is a Gini IndexLasso Regression DoubtWhat is the intuition behind Ridge Regression and Adapting Gradient Descent algorithms?Neural Network unable to track training dataTimestamps in Ridge Regression Scikit LearnCost function in linear regressionHow can someone avoid over fitting or data leak in ridge and lasso regression when the training score is high and test score is low?Basis expansion for regression using neural network?
$begingroup$
I am trying to read kernel ridge regression from this link
But , I am unable to get the intution behind the derivation.
Can anyone please help me ?
machine-learning regression kernel
$endgroup$
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 2 hours ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am trying to read kernel ridge regression from this link
But , I am unable to get the intution behind the derivation.
Can anyone please help me ?
machine-learning regression kernel
$endgroup$
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 2 hours ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
$begingroup$
Which part, specifically, is unclear?
$endgroup$
– marco_gorelli
May 21 '18 at 8:45
$begingroup$
hi @Lupacante , thanks for your reply. I am specifically unclear about the equation (4) and henceforth.
$endgroup$
– DukeLover
May 21 '18 at 11:42
add a comment |
$begingroup$
I am trying to read kernel ridge regression from this link
But , I am unable to get the intution behind the derivation.
Can anyone please help me ?
machine-learning regression kernel
$endgroup$
I am trying to read kernel ridge regression from this link
But , I am unable to get the intution behind the derivation.
Can anyone please help me ?
machine-learning regression kernel
machine-learning regression kernel
asked May 21 '18 at 8:38
DukeLoverDukeLover
767
767
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 2 hours ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
bumped to the homepage by Community♦ 2 hours ago
This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
$begingroup$
Which part, specifically, is unclear?
$endgroup$
– marco_gorelli
May 21 '18 at 8:45
$begingroup$
hi @Lupacante , thanks for your reply. I am specifically unclear about the equation (4) and henceforth.
$endgroup$
– DukeLover
May 21 '18 at 11:42
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Which part, specifically, is unclear?
$endgroup$
– marco_gorelli
May 21 '18 at 8:45
$begingroup$
hi @Lupacante , thanks for your reply. I am specifically unclear about the equation (4) and henceforth.
$endgroup$
– DukeLover
May 21 '18 at 11:42
$begingroup$
Which part, specifically, is unclear?
$endgroup$
– marco_gorelli
May 21 '18 at 8:45
$begingroup$
Which part, specifically, is unclear?
$endgroup$
– marco_gorelli
May 21 '18 at 8:45
$begingroup$
hi @Lupacante , thanks for your reply. I am specifically unclear about the equation (4) and henceforth.
$endgroup$
– DukeLover
May 21 '18 at 11:42
$begingroup$
hi @Lupacante , thanks for your reply. I am specifically unclear about the equation (4) and henceforth.
$endgroup$
– DukeLover
May 21 '18 at 11:42
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Equation (4) simply gives us an identity (without proof):
$$(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1 = PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1.$$
Let's check that it does indeed hold. The left hand side equals
beginalign*
(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1 &= left(left((P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1right)^-1right)^-1\
&= left(RB^-T(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)right)^-1\
&= left(RB^-TP^-1 + Bright)^-1.
endalign*
The right hand side equals
beginalign*
PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1 &= left(left(PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1right)^-1right)^-1\
&= left((BPB^T + R)B^-TP^-1 right)^-1\
&= left(B + RB^-TP^-1 right)^-1.
endalign*
So indeed, the equality holds.
If you take the right hand side of equation (3)
$$left(lambdamathbfI + sum_i mathbfx_i mathbfx_i^Tright)^-1left(sum_j y_j mathbfx_jright),$$
replace $mathbfx_i$ with $phi_i$ and rewrite it as
$$left(lambdamathbfI + PhiPhi^Tright)^-1left(Phimathbfyright),$$
then it matches the left hand side of the identity in equation (4) (right-multiplied by $mathbfy$), where
$$P^-1 = lambda^-1mathbfI$$
$$B^T = Phi$$
$$R = mathbfI.$$
Therefore, we can rewrite the right hand side of equation (4) as
$$lambda^-1mathbfIPhi(Philambda^-1Phi + mathbfI)^-1mathbfy.$$ As $lambda$ is a scalar, we can rewrite this as
$$Phi(PhiPhi + lambdamathbfI)^-1mathbfy.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi , I am not able to understand from where this identity is coming ?
$endgroup$
– DukeLover
May 21 '18 at 13:28
$begingroup$
@DukeLover I've edited my answer accordingly - is it clear now?
$endgroup$
– marco_gorelli
May 22 '18 at 8:30
add a comment |
Your Answer
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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active
oldest
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active
oldest
votes
$begingroup$
Equation (4) simply gives us an identity (without proof):
$$(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1 = PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1.$$
Let's check that it does indeed hold. The left hand side equals
beginalign*
(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1 &= left(left((P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1right)^-1right)^-1\
&= left(RB^-T(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)right)^-1\
&= left(RB^-TP^-1 + Bright)^-1.
endalign*
The right hand side equals
beginalign*
PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1 &= left(left(PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1right)^-1right)^-1\
&= left((BPB^T + R)B^-TP^-1 right)^-1\
&= left(B + RB^-TP^-1 right)^-1.
endalign*
So indeed, the equality holds.
If you take the right hand side of equation (3)
$$left(lambdamathbfI + sum_i mathbfx_i mathbfx_i^Tright)^-1left(sum_j y_j mathbfx_jright),$$
replace $mathbfx_i$ with $phi_i$ and rewrite it as
$$left(lambdamathbfI + PhiPhi^Tright)^-1left(Phimathbfyright),$$
then it matches the left hand side of the identity in equation (4) (right-multiplied by $mathbfy$), where
$$P^-1 = lambda^-1mathbfI$$
$$B^T = Phi$$
$$R = mathbfI.$$
Therefore, we can rewrite the right hand side of equation (4) as
$$lambda^-1mathbfIPhi(Philambda^-1Phi + mathbfI)^-1mathbfy.$$ As $lambda$ is a scalar, we can rewrite this as
$$Phi(PhiPhi + lambdamathbfI)^-1mathbfy.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi , I am not able to understand from where this identity is coming ?
$endgroup$
– DukeLover
May 21 '18 at 13:28
$begingroup$
@DukeLover I've edited my answer accordingly - is it clear now?
$endgroup$
– marco_gorelli
May 22 '18 at 8:30
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Equation (4) simply gives us an identity (without proof):
$$(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1 = PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1.$$
Let's check that it does indeed hold. The left hand side equals
beginalign*
(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1 &= left(left((P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1right)^-1right)^-1\
&= left(RB^-T(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)right)^-1\
&= left(RB^-TP^-1 + Bright)^-1.
endalign*
The right hand side equals
beginalign*
PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1 &= left(left(PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1right)^-1right)^-1\
&= left((BPB^T + R)B^-TP^-1 right)^-1\
&= left(B + RB^-TP^-1 right)^-1.
endalign*
So indeed, the equality holds.
If you take the right hand side of equation (3)
$$left(lambdamathbfI + sum_i mathbfx_i mathbfx_i^Tright)^-1left(sum_j y_j mathbfx_jright),$$
replace $mathbfx_i$ with $phi_i$ and rewrite it as
$$left(lambdamathbfI + PhiPhi^Tright)^-1left(Phimathbfyright),$$
then it matches the left hand side of the identity in equation (4) (right-multiplied by $mathbfy$), where
$$P^-1 = lambda^-1mathbfI$$
$$B^T = Phi$$
$$R = mathbfI.$$
Therefore, we can rewrite the right hand side of equation (4) as
$$lambda^-1mathbfIPhi(Philambda^-1Phi + mathbfI)^-1mathbfy.$$ As $lambda$ is a scalar, we can rewrite this as
$$Phi(PhiPhi + lambdamathbfI)^-1mathbfy.$$
$endgroup$
$begingroup$
Hi , I am not able to understand from where this identity is coming ?
$endgroup$
– DukeLover
May 21 '18 at 13:28
$begingroup$
@DukeLover I've edited my answer accordingly - is it clear now?
$endgroup$
– marco_gorelli
May 22 '18 at 8:30
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Equation (4) simply gives us an identity (without proof):
$$(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1 = PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1.$$
Let's check that it does indeed hold. The left hand side equals
beginalign*
(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1 &= left(left((P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1right)^-1right)^-1\
&= left(RB^-T(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)right)^-1\
&= left(RB^-TP^-1 + Bright)^-1.
endalign*
The right hand side equals
beginalign*
PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1 &= left(left(PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1right)^-1right)^-1\
&= left((BPB^T + R)B^-TP^-1 right)^-1\
&= left(B + RB^-TP^-1 right)^-1.
endalign*
So indeed, the equality holds.
If you take the right hand side of equation (3)
$$left(lambdamathbfI + sum_i mathbfx_i mathbfx_i^Tright)^-1left(sum_j y_j mathbfx_jright),$$
replace $mathbfx_i$ with $phi_i$ and rewrite it as
$$left(lambdamathbfI + PhiPhi^Tright)^-1left(Phimathbfyright),$$
then it matches the left hand side of the identity in equation (4) (right-multiplied by $mathbfy$), where
$$P^-1 = lambda^-1mathbfI$$
$$B^T = Phi$$
$$R = mathbfI.$$
Therefore, we can rewrite the right hand side of equation (4) as
$$lambda^-1mathbfIPhi(Philambda^-1Phi + mathbfI)^-1mathbfy.$$ As $lambda$ is a scalar, we can rewrite this as
$$Phi(PhiPhi + lambdamathbfI)^-1mathbfy.$$
$endgroup$
Equation (4) simply gives us an identity (without proof):
$$(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1 = PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1.$$
Let's check that it does indeed hold. The left hand side equals
beginalign*
(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1 &= left(left((P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)^-1B^TR^-1right)^-1right)^-1\
&= left(RB^-T(P^-1 + B^TR^-1B)right)^-1\
&= left(RB^-TP^-1 + Bright)^-1.
endalign*
The right hand side equals
beginalign*
PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1 &= left(left(PB^T (BPB^T + R)^-1right)^-1right)^-1\
&= left((BPB^T + R)B^-TP^-1 right)^-1\
&= left(B + RB^-TP^-1 right)^-1.
endalign*
So indeed, the equality holds.
If you take the right hand side of equation (3)
$$left(lambdamathbfI + sum_i mathbfx_i mathbfx_i^Tright)^-1left(sum_j y_j mathbfx_jright),$$
replace $mathbfx_i$ with $phi_i$ and rewrite it as
$$left(lambdamathbfI + PhiPhi^Tright)^-1left(Phimathbfyright),$$
then it matches the left hand side of the identity in equation (4) (right-multiplied by $mathbfy$), where
$$P^-1 = lambda^-1mathbfI$$
$$B^T = Phi$$
$$R = mathbfI.$$
Therefore, we can rewrite the right hand side of equation (4) as
$$lambda^-1mathbfIPhi(Philambda^-1Phi + mathbfI)^-1mathbfy.$$ As $lambda$ is a scalar, we can rewrite this as
$$Phi(PhiPhi + lambdamathbfI)^-1mathbfy.$$
edited May 22 '18 at 8:29
answered May 21 '18 at 12:32
marco_gorellimarco_gorelli
4819
4819
$begingroup$
Hi , I am not able to understand from where this identity is coming ?
$endgroup$
– DukeLover
May 21 '18 at 13:28
$begingroup$
@DukeLover I've edited my answer accordingly - is it clear now?
$endgroup$
– marco_gorelli
May 22 '18 at 8:30
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Hi , I am not able to understand from where this identity is coming ?
$endgroup$
– DukeLover
May 21 '18 at 13:28
$begingroup$
@DukeLover I've edited my answer accordingly - is it clear now?
$endgroup$
– marco_gorelli
May 22 '18 at 8:30
$begingroup$
Hi , I am not able to understand from where this identity is coming ?
$endgroup$
– DukeLover
May 21 '18 at 13:28
$begingroup$
Hi , I am not able to understand from where this identity is coming ?
$endgroup$
– DukeLover
May 21 '18 at 13:28
$begingroup$
@DukeLover I've edited my answer accordingly - is it clear now?
$endgroup$
– marco_gorelli
May 22 '18 at 8:30
$begingroup$
@DukeLover I've edited my answer accordingly - is it clear now?
$endgroup$
– marco_gorelli
May 22 '18 at 8:30
add a comment |
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$begingroup$
Which part, specifically, is unclear?
$endgroup$
– marco_gorelli
May 21 '18 at 8:45
$begingroup$
hi @Lupacante , thanks for your reply. I am specifically unclear about the equation (4) and henceforth.
$endgroup$
– DukeLover
May 21 '18 at 11:42