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What does the integral of a function times a function of a random variable represent, conceptually?


Expected value of a Gaussian random variable transformed with a logistic functionWhat is the expected partial value function really called?indicator variable - dirac delta or step functionExpected value of bounded function?Why does MLE not include the integral for joint probability of a contious random variableHow to calculate the expected value of a standard normal distribution?Plot the density function of a normal random variable knowing only the characteristic function in RExpectation of a function of a random variable from CDFDerivation of variance of normal distribution with gamma functionMoment Generating Function for Lognormal Random Variable






.everyoneloves__top-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__mid-leaderboard:empty,.everyoneloves__bot-mid-leaderboard:empty margin-bottom:0;








1












$begingroup$


I am trying to understand conceptually what does the following give me or tell me:



$$int f(x) cdot g(x) , dx$$



where $f(x)$ is any continuous function of $x$ and $g(x)$ is the probability density function for a random variable, for example a normal distribution's PDF is:



$$ g(x) = frac1 2 pi sigma^2 expleft(frac- (x - mu)^2 2 sigma ^2right) $$



I understand the integral of a PDF gives me the CDF. So:



$$int_-infty^0 g(x) , dx$$



Gives me the probability of $x$ being less than $0$. However, what happens when you multiply $g(x)$ by another function $f(x)$ and take the integral? I heard it gives you the expected payoff assuming $f(x)$ is a function of payoffs and you take an integral from -infinity to +infinity. This, if true, I conceptually understand. sum of payoffs times the probabilities is the expected value of whatever game you are playing.



I start getting confused when the boundaries of the integral are not $pm infty$. I'm not sure in that case what integral conceptually means. For example:



$$int_-infty^0 f(x) g(x) , dx$$



What does that tell me?










share|cite|improve this question









New contributor




vt_og is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.







$endgroup$


















    1












    $begingroup$


    I am trying to understand conceptually what does the following give me or tell me:



    $$int f(x) cdot g(x) , dx$$



    where $f(x)$ is any continuous function of $x$ and $g(x)$ is the probability density function for a random variable, for example a normal distribution's PDF is:



    $$ g(x) = frac1 2 pi sigma^2 expleft(frac- (x - mu)^2 2 sigma ^2right) $$



    I understand the integral of a PDF gives me the CDF. So:



    $$int_-infty^0 g(x) , dx$$



    Gives me the probability of $x$ being less than $0$. However, what happens when you multiply $g(x)$ by another function $f(x)$ and take the integral? I heard it gives you the expected payoff assuming $f(x)$ is a function of payoffs and you take an integral from -infinity to +infinity. This, if true, I conceptually understand. sum of payoffs times the probabilities is the expected value of whatever game you are playing.



    I start getting confused when the boundaries of the integral are not $pm infty$. I'm not sure in that case what integral conceptually means. For example:



    $$int_-infty^0 f(x) g(x) , dx$$



    What does that tell me?










    share|cite|improve this question









    New contributor




    vt_og is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
    Check out our Code of Conduct.







    $endgroup$














      1












      1








      1


      1



      $begingroup$


      I am trying to understand conceptually what does the following give me or tell me:



      $$int f(x) cdot g(x) , dx$$



      where $f(x)$ is any continuous function of $x$ and $g(x)$ is the probability density function for a random variable, for example a normal distribution's PDF is:



      $$ g(x) = frac1 2 pi sigma^2 expleft(frac- (x - mu)^2 2 sigma ^2right) $$



      I understand the integral of a PDF gives me the CDF. So:



      $$int_-infty^0 g(x) , dx$$



      Gives me the probability of $x$ being less than $0$. However, what happens when you multiply $g(x)$ by another function $f(x)$ and take the integral? I heard it gives you the expected payoff assuming $f(x)$ is a function of payoffs and you take an integral from -infinity to +infinity. This, if true, I conceptually understand. sum of payoffs times the probabilities is the expected value of whatever game you are playing.



      I start getting confused when the boundaries of the integral are not $pm infty$. I'm not sure in that case what integral conceptually means. For example:



      $$int_-infty^0 f(x) g(x) , dx$$



      What does that tell me?










      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      vt_og is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.







      $endgroup$




      I am trying to understand conceptually what does the following give me or tell me:



      $$int f(x) cdot g(x) , dx$$



      where $f(x)$ is any continuous function of $x$ and $g(x)$ is the probability density function for a random variable, for example a normal distribution's PDF is:



      $$ g(x) = frac1 2 pi sigma^2 expleft(frac- (x - mu)^2 2 sigma ^2right) $$



      I understand the integral of a PDF gives me the CDF. So:



      $$int_-infty^0 g(x) , dx$$



      Gives me the probability of $x$ being less than $0$. However, what happens when you multiply $g(x)$ by another function $f(x)$ and take the integral? I heard it gives you the expected payoff assuming $f(x)$ is a function of payoffs and you take an integral from -infinity to +infinity. This, if true, I conceptually understand. sum of payoffs times the probabilities is the expected value of whatever game you are playing.



      I start getting confused when the boundaries of the integral are not $pm infty$. I'm not sure in that case what integral conceptually means. For example:



      $$int_-infty^0 f(x) g(x) , dx$$



      What does that tell me?







      probability distributions normal-distribution random-variable expected-value






      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      vt_og is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.











      share|cite|improve this question









      New contributor




      vt_og is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.









      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited 5 hours ago









      Siong Thye Goh

      3,0842621




      3,0842621






      New contributor




      vt_og is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.









      asked 6 hours ago









      vt_ogvt_og

      141




      141




      New contributor




      vt_og is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.





      New contributor





      vt_og is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.






      vt_og is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
      Check out our Code of Conduct.




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3












          $begingroup$

          Suppose $g$ is the pdf of random variable $X$, then



          $$E[f(X)|X in A]= fracint_A f(x)g(x) , dxint_A g(t) , dt$$



          Hence $$int_A f(x) g(x) , dt = Pr(X in A) E[f(X)|X in A],$$



          it gives you the product of the conditional expectation of $f(X)$ given that $X in A$ and the probability that $X$ is in $A$.



          I think $E[f(X)|X in A]$ is a more interesting quantity, and I would divide your integral with $Pr(X in A)$ to recover it.






          share|cite|improve this answer









          $endgroup$




















            1












            $begingroup$

            The expected value of $X$ following distribution $g$ is



            $$
            E[X] = int x ,g(x) ,dx
            $$



            By the law of the unconscious statistician we know that the expected value of a function $f$ of random variable $X$ is



            $$
            E[f(X)] = int f(x) ,g(x) ,dx
            $$



            What does it tell you? It tells you what would be the expected value of your random variable if you transformed it somehow. For example, say that you have know what is the distribution of height for humans in centimetres, but are interested of distribution in meters, i.e. $f(x) = x/100$.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$




















              1












              $begingroup$

              Another way to look at this integral is through the random variable transformation point of view. You can think of $Y=f(x)$ as a new random variable, and your integral is the expectation (mean) $E[Y]$ of the new variable $Y$.



              Let's build the probability density function of the new variable $Y$. Unfortunately, we can't derive an analytical expression. We'll have to use a more complex, integral form of it.



              What is the probability that $Y$ will have values between $y$ and $y+dy$? We look at all $x$ where $y<f(x)<y+dy$ and add up their probabilities:
              $$g_y(y)dy=int_x mathbb1_y<f(x)<y+dy g(x)dx $$



              Next, we simply integrate over all values of $Y$:
              $$E[y]=int_yyg_y(y)dy$$
              Since $int_y$ runs through all possible $y$, it's the same as running the integral through all possible $x$.
              Just pause for a moment and agree with me...



              Now that you agreed with me you'll see that:
              $$E[Y]=int_xf(x)g(x)dx$$






              share|cite|improve this answer











              $endgroup$








              • 1




                $begingroup$
                This could use some elaboration. Perhaps an example would help. If you would also bring into consideration the idea of truncation or conditioning (which seems to be the main stumbling block), I think your point would be an excellent answer.
                $endgroup$
                – whuber
                5 hours ago







              • 1




                $begingroup$
                @whuber, i did impossible: explained Lebesque integral without measure theory!
                $endgroup$
                – Aksakal
                5 hours ago











              Your Answer








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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes









              3












              $begingroup$

              Suppose $g$ is the pdf of random variable $X$, then



              $$E[f(X)|X in A]= fracint_A f(x)g(x) , dxint_A g(t) , dt$$



              Hence $$int_A f(x) g(x) , dt = Pr(X in A) E[f(X)|X in A],$$



              it gives you the product of the conditional expectation of $f(X)$ given that $X in A$ and the probability that $X$ is in $A$.



              I think $E[f(X)|X in A]$ is a more interesting quantity, and I would divide your integral with $Pr(X in A)$ to recover it.






              share|cite|improve this answer









              $endgroup$

















                3












                $begingroup$

                Suppose $g$ is the pdf of random variable $X$, then



                $$E[f(X)|X in A]= fracint_A f(x)g(x) , dxint_A g(t) , dt$$



                Hence $$int_A f(x) g(x) , dt = Pr(X in A) E[f(X)|X in A],$$



                it gives you the product of the conditional expectation of $f(X)$ given that $X in A$ and the probability that $X$ is in $A$.



                I think $E[f(X)|X in A]$ is a more interesting quantity, and I would divide your integral with $Pr(X in A)$ to recover it.






                share|cite|improve this answer









                $endgroup$















                  3












                  3








                  3





                  $begingroup$

                  Suppose $g$ is the pdf of random variable $X$, then



                  $$E[f(X)|X in A]= fracint_A f(x)g(x) , dxint_A g(t) , dt$$



                  Hence $$int_A f(x) g(x) , dt = Pr(X in A) E[f(X)|X in A],$$



                  it gives you the product of the conditional expectation of $f(X)$ given that $X in A$ and the probability that $X$ is in $A$.



                  I think $E[f(X)|X in A]$ is a more interesting quantity, and I would divide your integral with $Pr(X in A)$ to recover it.






                  share|cite|improve this answer









                  $endgroup$



                  Suppose $g$ is the pdf of random variable $X$, then



                  $$E[f(X)|X in A]= fracint_A f(x)g(x) , dxint_A g(t) , dt$$



                  Hence $$int_A f(x) g(x) , dt = Pr(X in A) E[f(X)|X in A],$$



                  it gives you the product of the conditional expectation of $f(X)$ given that $X in A$ and the probability that $X$ is in $A$.



                  I think $E[f(X)|X in A]$ is a more interesting quantity, and I would divide your integral with $Pr(X in A)$ to recover it.







                  share|cite|improve this answer












                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer










                  answered 5 hours ago









                  Siong Thye GohSiong Thye Goh

                  3,0842621




                  3,0842621























                      1












                      $begingroup$

                      The expected value of $X$ following distribution $g$ is



                      $$
                      E[X] = int x ,g(x) ,dx
                      $$



                      By the law of the unconscious statistician we know that the expected value of a function $f$ of random variable $X$ is



                      $$
                      E[f(X)] = int f(x) ,g(x) ,dx
                      $$



                      What does it tell you? It tells you what would be the expected value of your random variable if you transformed it somehow. For example, say that you have know what is the distribution of height for humans in centimetres, but are interested of distribution in meters, i.e. $f(x) = x/100$.






                      share|cite|improve this answer









                      $endgroup$

















                        1












                        $begingroup$

                        The expected value of $X$ following distribution $g$ is



                        $$
                        E[X] = int x ,g(x) ,dx
                        $$



                        By the law of the unconscious statistician we know that the expected value of a function $f$ of random variable $X$ is



                        $$
                        E[f(X)] = int f(x) ,g(x) ,dx
                        $$



                        What does it tell you? It tells you what would be the expected value of your random variable if you transformed it somehow. For example, say that you have know what is the distribution of height for humans in centimetres, but are interested of distribution in meters, i.e. $f(x) = x/100$.






                        share|cite|improve this answer









                        $endgroup$















                          1












                          1








                          1





                          $begingroup$

                          The expected value of $X$ following distribution $g$ is



                          $$
                          E[X] = int x ,g(x) ,dx
                          $$



                          By the law of the unconscious statistician we know that the expected value of a function $f$ of random variable $X$ is



                          $$
                          E[f(X)] = int f(x) ,g(x) ,dx
                          $$



                          What does it tell you? It tells you what would be the expected value of your random variable if you transformed it somehow. For example, say that you have know what is the distribution of height for humans in centimetres, but are interested of distribution in meters, i.e. $f(x) = x/100$.






                          share|cite|improve this answer









                          $endgroup$



                          The expected value of $X$ following distribution $g$ is



                          $$
                          E[X] = int x ,g(x) ,dx
                          $$



                          By the law of the unconscious statistician we know that the expected value of a function $f$ of random variable $X$ is



                          $$
                          E[f(X)] = int f(x) ,g(x) ,dx
                          $$



                          What does it tell you? It tells you what would be the expected value of your random variable if you transformed it somehow. For example, say that you have know what is the distribution of height for humans in centimetres, but are interested of distribution in meters, i.e. $f(x) = x/100$.







                          share|cite|improve this answer












                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer










                          answered 5 hours ago









                          TimTim

                          60.8k9134230




                          60.8k9134230





















                              1












                              $begingroup$

                              Another way to look at this integral is through the random variable transformation point of view. You can think of $Y=f(x)$ as a new random variable, and your integral is the expectation (mean) $E[Y]$ of the new variable $Y$.



                              Let's build the probability density function of the new variable $Y$. Unfortunately, we can't derive an analytical expression. We'll have to use a more complex, integral form of it.



                              What is the probability that $Y$ will have values between $y$ and $y+dy$? We look at all $x$ where $y<f(x)<y+dy$ and add up their probabilities:
                              $$g_y(y)dy=int_x mathbb1_y<f(x)<y+dy g(x)dx $$



                              Next, we simply integrate over all values of $Y$:
                              $$E[y]=int_yyg_y(y)dy$$
                              Since $int_y$ runs through all possible $y$, it's the same as running the integral through all possible $x$.
                              Just pause for a moment and agree with me...



                              Now that you agreed with me you'll see that:
                              $$E[Y]=int_xf(x)g(x)dx$$






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$








                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                This could use some elaboration. Perhaps an example would help. If you would also bring into consideration the idea of truncation or conditioning (which seems to be the main stumbling block), I think your point would be an excellent answer.
                                $endgroup$
                                – whuber
                                5 hours ago







                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                @whuber, i did impossible: explained Lebesque integral without measure theory!
                                $endgroup$
                                – Aksakal
                                5 hours ago















                              1












                              $begingroup$

                              Another way to look at this integral is through the random variable transformation point of view. You can think of $Y=f(x)$ as a new random variable, and your integral is the expectation (mean) $E[Y]$ of the new variable $Y$.



                              Let's build the probability density function of the new variable $Y$. Unfortunately, we can't derive an analytical expression. We'll have to use a more complex, integral form of it.



                              What is the probability that $Y$ will have values between $y$ and $y+dy$? We look at all $x$ where $y<f(x)<y+dy$ and add up their probabilities:
                              $$g_y(y)dy=int_x mathbb1_y<f(x)<y+dy g(x)dx $$



                              Next, we simply integrate over all values of $Y$:
                              $$E[y]=int_yyg_y(y)dy$$
                              Since $int_y$ runs through all possible $y$, it's the same as running the integral through all possible $x$.
                              Just pause for a moment and agree with me...



                              Now that you agreed with me you'll see that:
                              $$E[Y]=int_xf(x)g(x)dx$$






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$








                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                This could use some elaboration. Perhaps an example would help. If you would also bring into consideration the idea of truncation or conditioning (which seems to be the main stumbling block), I think your point would be an excellent answer.
                                $endgroup$
                                – whuber
                                5 hours ago







                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                @whuber, i did impossible: explained Lebesque integral without measure theory!
                                $endgroup$
                                – Aksakal
                                5 hours ago













                              1












                              1








                              1





                              $begingroup$

                              Another way to look at this integral is through the random variable transformation point of view. You can think of $Y=f(x)$ as a new random variable, and your integral is the expectation (mean) $E[Y]$ of the new variable $Y$.



                              Let's build the probability density function of the new variable $Y$. Unfortunately, we can't derive an analytical expression. We'll have to use a more complex, integral form of it.



                              What is the probability that $Y$ will have values between $y$ and $y+dy$? We look at all $x$ where $y<f(x)<y+dy$ and add up their probabilities:
                              $$g_y(y)dy=int_x mathbb1_y<f(x)<y+dy g(x)dx $$



                              Next, we simply integrate over all values of $Y$:
                              $$E[y]=int_yyg_y(y)dy$$
                              Since $int_y$ runs through all possible $y$, it's the same as running the integral through all possible $x$.
                              Just pause for a moment and agree with me...



                              Now that you agreed with me you'll see that:
                              $$E[Y]=int_xf(x)g(x)dx$$






                              share|cite|improve this answer











                              $endgroup$



                              Another way to look at this integral is through the random variable transformation point of view. You can think of $Y=f(x)$ as a new random variable, and your integral is the expectation (mean) $E[Y]$ of the new variable $Y$.



                              Let's build the probability density function of the new variable $Y$. Unfortunately, we can't derive an analytical expression. We'll have to use a more complex, integral form of it.



                              What is the probability that $Y$ will have values between $y$ and $y+dy$? We look at all $x$ where $y<f(x)<y+dy$ and add up their probabilities:
                              $$g_y(y)dy=int_x mathbb1_y<f(x)<y+dy g(x)dx $$



                              Next, we simply integrate over all values of $Y$:
                              $$E[y]=int_yyg_y(y)dy$$
                              Since $int_y$ runs through all possible $y$, it's the same as running the integral through all possible $x$.
                              Just pause for a moment and agree with me...



                              Now that you agreed with me you'll see that:
                              $$E[Y]=int_xf(x)g(x)dx$$







                              share|cite|improve this answer














                              share|cite|improve this answer



                              share|cite|improve this answer








                              edited 4 hours ago

























                              answered 5 hours ago









                              AksakalAksakal

                              39.5k452120




                              39.5k452120







                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                This could use some elaboration. Perhaps an example would help. If you would also bring into consideration the idea of truncation or conditioning (which seems to be the main stumbling block), I think your point would be an excellent answer.
                                $endgroup$
                                – whuber
                                5 hours ago







                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                @whuber, i did impossible: explained Lebesque integral without measure theory!
                                $endgroup$
                                – Aksakal
                                5 hours ago












                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                This could use some elaboration. Perhaps an example would help. If you would also bring into consideration the idea of truncation or conditioning (which seems to be the main stumbling block), I think your point would be an excellent answer.
                                $endgroup$
                                – whuber
                                5 hours ago







                              • 1




                                $begingroup$
                                @whuber, i did impossible: explained Lebesque integral without measure theory!
                                $endgroup$
                                – Aksakal
                                5 hours ago







                              1




                              1




                              $begingroup$
                              This could use some elaboration. Perhaps an example would help. If you would also bring into consideration the idea of truncation or conditioning (which seems to be the main stumbling block), I think your point would be an excellent answer.
                              $endgroup$
                              – whuber
                              5 hours ago





                              $begingroup$
                              This could use some elaboration. Perhaps an example would help. If you would also bring into consideration the idea of truncation or conditioning (which seems to be the main stumbling block), I think your point would be an excellent answer.
                              $endgroup$
                              – whuber
                              5 hours ago





                              1




                              1




                              $begingroup$
                              @whuber, i did impossible: explained Lebesque integral without measure theory!
                              $endgroup$
                              – Aksakal
                              5 hours ago




                              $begingroup$
                              @whuber, i did impossible: explained Lebesque integral without measure theory!
                              $endgroup$
                              – Aksakal
                              5 hours ago










                              vt_og is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.









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